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Originally Posted by Ksyrup
Maybe I'm missing something, but isn't this question invalid, since the first two of these contradict each other? Either a man uses it, or a man does not use it.
If a man uses it without knowing it, isn't it possible that he nonetheless made it? Conversely, if a man made it, but does not use it, then the man cannot have used it, whether he knows it or not.
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Apparently, it's not the same 'man' and all. Probably could've been phrased better, I'm sure...but it was enough to piss me off for the past few days!